KVV E-Modules - Haematology

Quadrant -I (Video)

Quadrant 01: Composition & function of blood components

Quadrant 01: Plasma proteins

Quadrant 01: RBC -formation

Quadrant 01: Hb-final

Quadrant 01: WBC

Quadrant 01: Platelets & hemostasis

Quadrant 01: Blood group

Quadrant - II (Study Material)

1. Quadrant 02: Blood-groups

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2. Quadrant 02: Plasma proteins

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3. Quadrant 02: Hemoglobin

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4. Quadrant 02: Composition and Functions of Blood

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5. Quadrant 02: Platelets & hemostasis

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6. Quadrant 02: WBC

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7. Quadrant 02: RBC -formation

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Quadrant - III (Assignments)

1. Quadrant 03: Composition & function of blood components

Composition & function of blood components

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2. Quadrant 03: Plasma proteins

Plasma proteins

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3. Quadrant 03: RBC -formation

RBC -formation

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4. Quadrant 03: Hemoglobin

Hemoglobin

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5. Quadrant 03: WBC

WBC

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6. Quadrant 03: Platelets & hemostasis

Platelets & hemostasis

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7. Quadrant 03: Blood-groups

Blood-groups

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Quadrant - IV (MCQs)

Amount of total blood volume in an individual is approximately:

A: 50 ml/kg body weight B: 60 ml/kg body weight C: 70 ml/kg body weight D: 80 ml/kg body weight

Total blood volume (% of body weight) is:

A: 8 B: 20 C: 40 D: 80

Haematocrit is ratio of:

A: WBC to plasma B: Platelets to plasma C: RBCs to plasma D: Total blood cells to plasma

True about plasma in blood is:

A: It contains more of inorganic than organic molecules B: It represents 45% of total blood volume C: It is a clear, colourless fluid portion of the blood D: It contains 91 % water and 9% solids

Normal A/G ratio in blood is:

A: 1.7: 1 B: 1: 1.7 C: 7.1: 1 D: 1: 7.1

Millieu interieur refers to:

A: Internal environment of the cell B: Fluid which is present within the cell C: Haemoglobin that helps to maintain constancy of blood pH D: Haemostasis

Serum does not contain:

A: Calcium B: Prothrombin C: Factor VII D: Factor X

Normal blood pH is:

A: 7.20 B: 7.30 C: 7.40 D: 7.50

The hematocrit of 38% means that in the sample of blood analysed:

A: 38% haemoglobin IS in the plasma B: 38% of the total blood volume is made up of blood plasma C: 38% of the total blood volume is made up of red, white blood cells and platelets D: 38% of the haemoglobin is in red blood cells

Haematology

A: Albumin: 2–3 gm/dL B: Globulin: 3–5 gm/dL C: Fibrinogen: 0.3 gm/dL D: Prothrombin: 0.03 gm/dL

Lipoprotein with maximum fat content is:

A: High density lipoprotein (HDL) B: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) C: Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) D: Chylomicrons

In a healthy individual sudden decrease of total plasma proteins upto 4-5 gm/dL produces:

A: Protein shock B: No ill-effects on the body C: Exhaustion of protein reserves D: Generalised oedema

Protein shock occurs when total plasma protein concentration becomes less than:

A: 2 gm/dL B: 3 gm/dL C: 4 gm/dL D: 5 gm/dL

Following a haemorrhage, the order in which plasma proteins are regenerated:

A: Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen B: Globulin, fibrinogen, albumin C: Fibrinogen, globulin, albumin D: Fibrinogen, albumin, globulin

Total plasma protein levels are low during infancy due to:

A: Low protein intake B: Increased protein loss in urine C: Hepatic immaturity D: Total plasma protein levels are higher in infants as compared to adults

Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to:

A: Albumin B: Preallbumin C: Electrolytes D: Fibrinogen

Which one of the following is not a crystalloid?

A: Urea B: Na+ C: Glucose D: Albumin

Albumin fraction in plasma contributes to colloidal osmotic pressure to the extent of:

A: 20% B: 50% C: 80% D: 100%

Calculate the net filtration pressure across the capillary wall. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = 5.3 mmHg, Plasma colloid osmotic pressure …

A: +0.5 mm Hg B: -0.3 mmHg C: -0.5 mmHg D: +0.3 mmHg

Which of the following promotes the rouleaux formation?

A: Albumin B: Prealbumin C: Fibrinogen D: Prothrombin

Buffering capacity of plasma proteins is ..... of total buffering capacity of blood:

A: 10% B: 15% C: 20% D: 25%

Which statement is not true of plasmapheresis?

A: It is a procedure of separation of plasma from the blood B: It is done to exhaust the protein reserves C: It is done to find out the rate of regeneration of plasma proteins on a standard diet D: lt is most commonly employed procedure during dialysis

Increase in gamma globulin is mainly seen in:

A: Tissue destruction B: Fasting C: Severe malnutrition D: Malabsorption

Increased capillary protein permeability will often cause:

A: Decreased interstitial fluid protein concentration B: Increased lymph flow C: Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure D: Interstitial oedema

Glutathiones within the RBCs:

A: Acts as an enzyme of glycolytic system B: Prevents damage of haemoglobin C: Required in the formation of NADPH D: Maintains the shape and flexibility of RBCs

Which is not a function of RBC?

A: Helps in identifying blood groups B: Helps transport of gases C: Provides stability to blood D: Helps in maintaining acid base balance in the body

Normal reticulocyte count at birth is:

A: 1-2% B: 2-6% C: 6-10% D: 30-40%

Interleukins: Are hormones like chemical messengers

A: Are hormones like chemical messengers B: Amino acid sequence is not known C: Are produced by macrophages only D: Are also called as lymphokines

Colony stimulating factor increases production of all except:

A: Lymphocytes B: Neutrophils C: Basophils D: Macrophages

ln a normal individual, erythropoiesis is completed in ...... days:

A: 3 B: 7 C: 14 D: 20

RBC count is less in young females compared to males of same age because:

A: Increased blood loss during menses B: Females are less active and less muscular than the males C: Oestrogens depresses the erythropoiesis D: Low thyroxine levels

Pituitary disturbances produce anaemia due to:

A: Decreased renal erythropoietin factor production B: Depressed erythropoietic response to hypoxia C: Decreased erythropoietin release D: Decreased hepatic synthesis of globulin

Normal bone marrow contains .....% proerythroblast and early normoblast, and ......% of intermediate and late normoblast cells:

A: 30; 70 B: 70; 30 C: 50; 50 D: 80; 20

All of following help in the maturation of RBCs, except:

A: Castle's intrinsic factor B: Iron C: Vitamin B-12 D: Folic acid

Iron deficiency anaemia is:

A: Normocytic normochronic B: Normocytic hypochromic C: Microcytic hypochromic D: Macrocytic hypochromic

All hemolytic anaemias are normocytic normochromic except:

A: Congenital spherocytosis B: Sickle cell anaemia C: Thalassaemia D: Erythroblastosis foetalis

Treatment of a pernicious anaemia patient with folic acid will improve all except:

A: Nervous lesions B: Blood picture C: Changes in GIT D: General symptoms

Patient with iron deficiency anaemia tends to have all, except:

A: Increase in total iron binding capacity B: Normal life span of RBCs C: Pallor of mucous membranes D: A low pO₂ in arterial blood

Biconcave shape and flexibility of RBC is maintained by:

A: Glutathione B: G-6-P-D C: Spectrin D: Actomyocin

Normal myeloid-erythroid ratio in the bone marrow is:

A: 1 : 1 B: 1 : 2 C: 3 : 1 D: 3 : 2

The commonest site of haemopoiesis in a 3 months old foetus is:

A: Liver B: Spleen C: Bone marrow D: Gut

Which bone does not contain the red marrow?

A: Vertebrae B: Ribs C: Sternum D: Clavicle

Major stimulus to trigger extra renal erythropoietin production is:

A: Generalised severe hypoxia B: Renal failure C: Hepatic insufficiency D: Bone marrow hypoxia

True about pernicious anaemia:

A: Caused by lesion of gastric mucosa which contains chief cells B: Associated with normoblastic hyperplasia of bone marrow C: Macrocytic hyperchromic type of RBCs D: Also called destructive/injurious anaemia

Erythroblastosis foetalis is:

A: Destruction of RBCs of mother by foetal Rh antibodies B: Haemolysis in foetus due to maternal Rh antibodies C: Haemolysis in foetus due to maternal ABO antibodies D: Destruction of RBCs of mother by foetal ABO antibodies

Total leucocyte count at birth is:

A: 4000-11000/µL B: 11000-15000/µL C: 15000-18000/µL D: 20000/µL

Neutrophil granules are regarded as lysosomes because:

A: Of fine sand like particles B: They take both acidic and basic stains C: They liberate peroxidase enzyme D: They contain variety of enzymes that can digest any type of substrate

Sequence of events involved during phagocytic mechanism are:

A: Chemotaxis - Diapedesis - Opsonization - Phagocytosis B: Diapedesis - Opsonization - Chemotaxis - Phagocytosis C: Diapedesis - Chemotaxis - Opsonization - Phagocytosis D: Phagocytosis - Diapedesis - Chemotaxis - Opsonization

Hereditary condition in which neutrophils fail to generate superoxide radical:

A: Myeloid leukaemia B: Agranulocytosis C: Chronic granulomatous disease of childhood D: Neutrophil hypomotility

Which is not a physiological cause of leucocytosis?

A: Newborn B: Stress C: Pyogenic infection D: Exercise

Not true about leukaemia is:

A: Cancerous condition of blood B: Always associated with leucocytosis C: Associated with immature WBCs in the peripheral smear C: Associated with tremendous proliferation of myeloid series of cells in the bone marrow

Which is not a function of neutrophil?

A: Phagocytosis B: First line defence against all infections C: Produce febrile response D: Kill the bacteria

Chemical mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction is contained in the granules of:

A: Neutrophils B: Eosinophils C: Basophils D: Mast cells

Which one of the following statements concerning the monocyte is incorrect?

A: More common in blood than eosinophil and basophil B: Produced in the adult by the bone marrow and lymph nodes C: Unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of inflammation D: Not classified as a granulocyte

Which is not true about phagocytosis by a neutrophil?

A: Optimal pH ranges from 6 to 8 B: Not dependent on oxygen C: Can phagocytose 5-20 bacteria D: Neutrophils are more powerful phagocytes than macrophages

Which of these is not present in eosinophil granules?

A: Lysozymes B: Histamine C: Ribonuclease enzyme D: Peroxidase enzyme

Haemoglobin iron combines with:

A: Molecular oxygen rather than ionic oxygen B: Both molecular as well as ionic oxygen C: Oxygen attached to 2,3 DPG D: Superoxide radical

Each haemoglobin molecule carries how many molecules of oxygen?

A: 2 B: 4 C: 6 D: 8

Increase in affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is associated with:

A: More release of oxygen by blood to the tissues B: Shifting of oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right C: Rise in 2,3 DPG concentration in the RBC D: Less oxygen available to the tissues

Exposure of haemoglobin to oxidising agents results in:

A: Ferric form oxidising to ferrous form of iron B: Formation of methaemoglobin C: Cyanosis D: Formation of deoxygenated haemoglobin

Not true about free haemoglobin:

A: Increases the viscosity of the blood B: Interferes with fluid exchange across the capillary wall C: Damages the kidney D: Decreases osmotic pressure of plasma

Index of oxygen carrying capacity of blood is:

A: 2,3 DPG levels in the RBCs B: Iron content of haemoglobin C: Haemoglobin concentration in the blood D: Total iron content in the blood

Not correct about tissue macrophage system:

A: Also called reticulo endothelial system B: Ingests large foreign colloidal particles C: Interferes with fluid exchange across the capillary wall D: Decreases osmotic pressure of plasma

More than 90% of foetal haemoglobin (HbF) is normally replaced by adult haemoglobin (HbA):

A: Soon after birth B: 1-2 months after birth C: 3 months after birth D: 4 months after birth

Main differentiating feature between major and minor β-thalassaemia is that the former:

A: Is more common B: Inherited as heterozygous transmission C: Life span is longer D: Hb-F levels are markedly increased

Sickle cell anaemia, false statement is:

A: RBC fragility increases B: RBCs are sickle shaped C: Blood flow to tissues decreases D: Manifests as mild anaemia

The conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin occurs by:

A: Prothrombin B: Thrombin C: Thromboplastin D: Platelets

Not true of temporary haemostatic plug:

A: It is a loose aggregation of platelets B: Can be removed by anticoagulants C: Seen following an injury to vessel wall D: Gets converted to definitive plug by fibrin

Role of platelets phospholipids in blood coagulation is:

A: Provides a surface on which reagents are concentrated B: Helps platelets adhesion C: Helps platelets activation D: Helps platelets aggregation

In clotting mechanism via intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, the key reaction is:

A: Formation of thrombin B: Formation of fibrin C: Formation of prothrombin activator D: Conversion of factor X to its active form

Administration of aspirin in low dosage shown to be of value in preventing myocardial infarction by:

A: Inhibiting platelets aggregation B: Preventing platelets adhesion C: Initiating platelets activation D: Retracting the blood clot

Calcium deficiencies do not produce coagulation disorders because:

A: Only traces of calcium are required for coagulation B: If deficiency is very severe, it may produce bleeding symptoms C: Calcium acts as a co-factor D: All other clotting factors are intact

Blood normally does not clot in circulation; false statement is

A: Clotted blood liberates certain substances which prevents further clotting B: Removal of activated clotting factors from the circulation C: Activation of fibrinolytic system that limits clotting D: Presence of clotting factors in small amounts.

Human TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) used clinically in treatment of early myocardial infarction acts by:

A: Activation of fibrinolytic system B: Stimulating heparin release from liver C: Removing activated clotting factors from the circulation D: Inhibiting thrombin

Heparin acts by inhibiting:

A: Active form of clotting factor VIII B: Vitamin K synthesis in liver C: Calcium D: Action of thrombin

Lack of Vitamin K causes deficiency of all except:

A: Prothrombin B: Fibrinogen C: Factor VII D: Factor X

Primary purpura is:

A: Congenital disorder B: Due to allergies C: Clotting time is prolonged D: Capillaries are normal

Bleeding in thrombocytopenic purpura usually occurs when platelet count is reduced below:

A: 1.5 lac/µL B: 75,000/µL C: 50,000/µL D: 25,000/µL

Haemophilia is:

A: Autosomal dominant B: Autosomal recessive C: X-linked recessive D: X-linked dominant

Haemostasis is normally associated with all of the following except:

A: Polymerization of plasma prothrombin molecule B: Blood coagulation C: Vascular spasm D: Formation of a platelet plug

The main feature of enzyme cascade systems is:

A: Amplification B: Activated enzymes in turn activate other inactive enzymes C: Negative feedback regulation D: Counter regulation

Constriction of blood vessel following injury is due to:

A: Anoxia B: Serotonin C: Endothelin D: Prostacyclin

Once active form of factor X is formed, clotting takes place within:

A: Few milliseconds B: Few seconds C: Few minutes D: 5-10 minutes

Fibrinolytic system gets activated by all of the following conditions, except:

A: Violent sudden death B: Stress and strain C: Glucocorticoids D: Trypsin inhibitor

Anticoagulants that prevent coagulation when placed in a blood sample outside the body include all except:

A: Citrates B: Oxalate C: Heparin D: Coumarins

Hemophilia B results due to lack of which of the following factors of coagulation?

A: Factor V B: Factor VIII C: Factor IX D: Factor X

The least frequent blood group in India is:

A: A B: B C: AB D: O

Blood group 'O' RBCs are agglutinated by:

A: Agglutinin α B: Agglutinin ß C: Both α and ß D: Neither α nor ß

Classical 'ABO' blood groups agglutinogen first appear:

A: In the 6th week of foetal life B: At birth C: 1 year of life D: 10 years of life

With respect to blood groups, maximum titre of agglutinin is usually reached:

A: At birth B: 1–3 years of age C: 1–3 years of age D: 8–10 years of age

Rh negative individuals are those:

A: Whose serum contains no Rh antibody B: Whose RBCs contain antigen D C: With absence of Rh antigen on their RBC membrane and their serum also contains no Rh antibody D: In whom production of anti-D antibodies can be provoked by other blood groups

Absence of anti-A and anti-Rh agglutinin in the plasma means that subject is:

A: A-positive or AB-positive B: A-negative or AB-negative C: A-positive, AB-positive, A-negative or AB-negative D: Type O-positive

Prevention of erythroblastosis in Rh-positive babies with the Rh-negative mother is by:

A: Passive immunizing the mother against Rh-positive factor soon after childbirth B: Immunization to be carried out during the pregnancy C: Destruction of Rh-positive cells in foetus by anti-Rh antibodies D: Fresh blood transfusion to the baby immediately after birth

Which one of the following changes would not occur in blood after 7 days of storage?

A: Decreased concentration of dextrose and increased concentration of lactic acid B: Decreased concentration of plasma potassium C: An increased prothrombin time D: A decreased concentration of platelets

Rh-negative mother carrying Rh-positive foetus, first child born is usually normal because:

A: Mother does not have agglutinogen D B: Anti-Rh titre developed is not sufficiently high to destroy the foetal RBCs C: Foetal agglutinogen D cannot cross the placenta D: Anti-Rh titre developed in the mother's plasma cannot cross the placenta to destroy the foetal RBCs

In cross-matching before blood transfusion:

A: Donor's RBCs are mixed with recipient plasma B: Donor's RBCs are mixed with recipient RBCs C: Donor's plasma is mixed with recipient RBCs D: Donor's plasma is mixed with recipient plasma

"Fresh" blood refers to blood which is administered:

A: Immediately B: Within 12 hours C: Within 24 hours D: Within 72 hours

Validation Certificates

1. Composition & function of blood components

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2. Plasma proteins

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3. Blood group

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4. Hb-final

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5. Platelets & hemostasis

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6. RBC -formation

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7. WBC

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