KVV E-Modules - Haematology

Quadrant -I (Video)

Composition & function of blood components

Plasma proteins

RBC -formation

Hb-final

WBC

Platelets & hemostasis

Blood group

Quadrant - II (Study Material)

1. Blood-groups

1. Write short nots on: (i) Landsteiner's Law (ii) Rh factor (iii) Hemolytic disease of newborn(iv) Uses of blood group tests (v) Direct cross matching(vi) Dangers of incompatible blood transfusion (vii) Storage of blood increasing degree while in contact with their own plasma in the blood bank. If stored cells are transfused, they become normal (reconditioned) in less than 48 hours, with reference to Na.,. and K+ content, volume, shape and saline fragility. (viii) Heterologus and autologus transfusion (ix) Prevention of Rh hemolysis diseases (x) Warm and cold antibodies 2. Give physiological basis of: (i) How a and~ agglutinins are produced in persons who do not have the respective agglutinogens in their RBCs? (ii) In a Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive foetus, the first child is usually normal. (iii) In case of extreme emergency, 'O' Rh negative blood should be transfused. (iv) LV. calcium gluconate is given with citrated blood transfusion. (v) Blood grouping can never prove that any suspected person is the actual father. (vi) ABO incompatabilities rarely produce hemolytic disease of newborn. (vii) Stored blood is not suitable for transfusing WBCs and platelet to a recipient. (viii) The terms'universal donor' and 'recipient' are no longer valid. (ix) Kemicterus, Hydrops foetalis, Icterus gravis neonatorum and Erythroblastosis foetalis 3. How the blood groups are determined? Give their frequency of distribution in India. 4. How much blood is sufficient to produce anti-D antibodies in an Rh negative individual? 5. Give the basic rules needed to be observed for blood transfusion. 6. At what age after birth a child's blood group is set in its true ABO type? Explain. 7. What changes blood cells undergo during cold storage? 8. Draw labelled diagram to show inheritance of blood groups.

2. Plasma proteins

Plasma proteins perform many functions in the body, including: Transport: Plasma proteins transport nutrients, hormones, lipids, vitamins, and drugs throughout the body Blood clotting: Plasma proteins like fibrinogen help form blood clots Immunity: Plasma proteins help the body's immune system, including specific immunity and non-specific immunity Acid-base balance: Plasma proteins help maintain the body's pH balance Oncotic pressure: Plasma proteins help maintain oncotic pressure Nutrition: Plasma proteins help with nutrition Heat distribution: Plasma proteins help distribute heat throughout the body Blood pressure: Plasma proteins help maintain blood pressure Blood volume: Plasma proteins help maintain blood volume Waste removal: Plasma proteins help remove waste products from the body Gene expression: Plasma proteins help regulate gene expression Some examples of plasma proteins include: Albumins: Create and maintain osmotic pressure and transport insoluble molecules Globulins: Participate in the immune system Fibrinogen: A soluble plasma clotting factor precursor that converts to fibrin, a threadlike protein that traps platelets Regulatory proteins: Regulate gene expression

3. Hemoglobin

What is Hemoglobin? Definition: Hemoglobin (Hb) is a globular, tetrameric protein found in red blood cells (RBCs), responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and carrying some carbon dioxide back to the lungs. Structure: Composed of 4 subunits — each with a globin chain (protein) and a heme group containing an iron atom. Genes: Human Hb is coded by HBA1, HBA2 (alpha chains), and HBB (beta chain) genes. Location: Mainly in RBCs (~90-95% of RBC dry weight), also found in some other cells like macrophages and neurons. Types of Hemoglobin Type Composition Percentage in Adults Notes Hemoglobin A (HbA) 2 alpha + 2 beta chains 95–98% Most common adult form Hemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 2 alpha + 2 delta chains 2–3% Minor adult form Hemoglobin F (HbF) 2 alpha + 2 gamma chains <1% in adults; main fetal Hb Higher O2 affinity; allows oxygen transfer from mother to fetus

4. Composition and Functions of Blood

1. Amount of total blood volume in an individual is approximately: (a) 50 ml/kg body weight (b) 60 ml/kg body weight (c) 70 ml/kg body weight (d) 80 ml/kg body weight 2. Total blood volume (% of body weight) is: (a) 8 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80 3. Haematocrit is ratio of: (a) WBC to plasma (b) Platelets to plasma (c) RBCs to plasma (d) Total blood cells to plasma 4. True about plasma in blood is: (a) It contains more of inorganic than organic molecules (b) It represents 45% of total blood volume (c) It is a clear, colourless fluid portion of the blood (d) It contains 91 % water and 9% solids 5. Normal A/G ratio in blood is: (a) 1.7: 1 (b) 1: 1.7 (c) 7.1: 1 (d) 1: 7.1 6. Millieu interieur refers to: (a) Internal environment of the cell (b) Fluid which is present within the cell (c) Haemoglobin that helps to maintain constancy of blood pH (d) Haemostasis 7. Serum does not contain: (a) Calcium (b) Prothrombin (c) Factor VII (d) Factor 8. 8 Normal blood pH is: (a) 7.20 (b) 7.30 (c) 7.40 (d) 7.50 9. The hematocrit of 38% means that in the sample of blood analysed: (a) 38% haemoglobin IS in the plasma (b) 38% of the total blood volume is made up of blood plasma (c) 38% of the total blood volume is made up of red, white blood cells and platelets (d) 38% of the haemoglobin is in red blood cells

5. Platelets & hemostasis

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6. WBC

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7. RBC -formation

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Quadrant - III (Assignments)

1. Composition & function of blood components

1. Give physio-clinical significance of Millieu interieur and Homeostasis 2. Enumerate functions of blood. 3. Explain the role of blood in regulation of body temperature.

2. Plasma proteins

1. Give physio-clinical significance of (i) Whipple's experiment (ii) Osmotic and Oncotic pressure 2. Write short notes on: (i) Origin of plasma proteins (iii) Role of diet to plasma proteins (v)Plasmapheresis (iii) Lipoprotein complexes (ii) Hepato-lenticular degeneration (iv) Variations in plasma protein concentration (vi) Oedema 3. Depict diagrammatically Starling forces that determine. filtration-absorption across the capillary wall. 4. Give an account of forms of plasma proteins and their functions. 5. What will happen and why if total plasma protein concentration decreases?

3. RBC -formation

1. Write short notes on: (i) Haemolytic anaemia(ii) Achlorhydria. (iii) Spectrin(iv)Interleukins and Colony stimulating factors (v) Regulation of Erythropoiesis (vi) Erythropoietin (vii) Haematinic principle (viii} Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord (ix) Reticulocytic response (x) Erythroblastosis foetalis (xi) G6PD anaemia (xii) Osmotic fragility of RBCs 2. Give physiological basis of: (i) why anaemia can never be hyperchrornic? (ii} Anaemia in kidney or liver disease (iii) How a RSC without a nucleus can cany out its normal functions for 120 days? 3. Differentiate between: (i) Haemopoicsis and erythropoiesis (iii) lntravascular and extravascular erythropoiesis (ii) Red and yellow bone marrow (iv) Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency anaemia (v) Blood picture in vitamin B12 and iron-deficiency anaemia (vi) Polycythermia and polycythemia vera (vii} Nom1oblastic and mcgaloblastic bone marrow 4. Give the stages of erythopoiesis with characteristic features. 5 How erythropoietin is formed? Give its mode of action. 6. Give basis of morphological classification of anaemias with characteristic features. 7. What will happen (i) lf folic acid is given to pernicious anaemia patient? (ii) lf immature RBCs appear in peripheral blood 8. Give characteristic features including peripheral blood picture of: (i) Iron deficiency anaemia. (ii) Pernicious anaemia.

4. Hemoglobin

1. Write short notes on: (i) Free haemoglobin (iii) Foetal haemoglobin (v) HbA1c (vii) Abnormal haemoglobins (ii) Haemoglobinopathies (iv) Thalassaemia (vi) Functions of ha1emoglobin (viii) Cooley's (or Mediterranean) anaemia 2. What will happen and why? (i) lf iron in haem is present in ferric form? (ii) lf HbF persists during adult life? (iii) If haemoglobin was dissolved in plasma? (iv) If glutamicacid in β-chain of HbA gets replaced by valine 3. Describe the factors controlling haemoglobin formation.

5. WBC

1. Write short notes on: (i) ECF-A (ii) Relative lymphocytosis (iii) Respiratory burst(iv) Endogenous pyrogen (v) Variation in leucocyte count(vi) First and second line of defence (vii) Regulation of granulopoiesis (viii) Physiology of phagocytic mechanism (ix) Disorders of phagocytic function. 2.Name various types of leucocytes found in the blood. Describe the major functions of each type. 3. Give the main causes of variations associated with different types of leucocytes. 4. Describe the role of eosinophils in control of allergic reactions. 5. Depict dfagramatically (i) Mechanism of phagocytosis by a neutrophil (ii) Regulation of granulopoeses

6. Platelets & hemostasis

1. Draw line diagram to show: 2. (i)Series of events involved in haemostasis (ii) Clotting mechanisms (iii) Formation of plasmin (iv) Fibrinolytic system (v) Inheritance of hemophilia (vi) Mast cells(vii) Reagins(viii) Chelating agents (ix) Anticoagulants (x) Bleeding disorders (xi) Effects and causes of vitamin K deficiency 3. Write short notes on: (i) Cascade amplification reaction (ii) Thrombomodulin (iii) Protein C (iv) Heparin (v) Human TPA 4.Explain/Give physiological basis: (i) Why calcium deficiency does not produce coagulation defects? (ii) Role of aspirin in prevention of a stroke. (iii) Why blood does not clot in circulation? (iv) Why clot does not spread in the injured vessel after blood coagulation? (v) ls it possible to have a female hemophilic child? (vi) Why is blood clotting abnormal in an individual with vitamin K deficiency? (vii) Purpura and its various forms. 5. Mention the role of calcium in clotting mechanism. 6. Give steps involved in formation of fibrinolysin. 7. Give physiological significance of fibrinolytic system. 8. Name natural anticoagulants and give their functioning in the body 9. How a balance is maintained between the clotting mechanism and fibrinolytic system in the body? 10. Name the tests to determine bleeding disorders.

7. Blood-groups

Quadrant - IV (MCQs)

Amount of total blood volume in an individual is approximately:

A: 50 ml/kg body weight B: 60 ml/kg body weight C: 70 ml/kg body weight D: 80 ml/kg body weight

Total blood volume (% of body weight) is:

A: 8 B: 20 C: 40 D: 80

Haematocrit is ratio of:

A: WBC to plasma B: Platelets to plasma C: RBCs to plasma D: Total blood cells to plasma

True about plasma in blood is:

A: It contains more of inorganic than organic molecules B: It represents 45% of total blood volume C: It is a clear, colourless fluid portion of the blood D: It contains 91 % water and 9% solids

Normal A/G ratio in blood is:

A: 1.7: 1 B: 1: 1.7 C: 7.1: 1 D: 1: 7.1

Millieu interieur refers to:

A: Internal environment of the cell B: Fluid which is present within the cell C: Haemoglobin that helps to maintain constancy of blood pH D: Haemostasis

Serum does not contain:

A: Calcium B: Prothrombin C: Factor VII D: Factor X

Normal blood pH is:

A: 7.20 B: 7.30 C: 7.40 D: 7.50

The hematocrit of 38% means that in the sample of blood analysed:

A: 38% haemoglobin IS in the plasma B: 38% of the total blood volume is made up of blood plasma C: 38% of the total blood volume is made up of red, white blood cells and platelets D: 38% of the haemoglobin is in red blood cells

Haematology

A: Albumin: 2–3 gm/dL B: Globulin: 3–5 gm/dL C: Fibrinogen: 0.3 gm/dL D: Prothrombin: 0.03 gm/dL

Lipoprotein with maximum fat content is:

A: High density lipoprotein (HDL) B: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) C: Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) D: Chylomicrons

In a healthy individual sudden decrease of total plasma proteins upto 4-5 gm/dL produces:

A: Protein shock B: No ill-effects on the body C: Exhaustion of protein reserves D: Generalised oedema

Protein shock occurs when total plasma protein concentration becomes less than:

A: 2 gm/dL B: 3 gm/dL C: 4 gm/dL D: 5 gm/dL

Following a haemorrhage, the order in which plasma proteins are regenerated:

A: Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen B: Globulin, fibrinogen, albumin C: Fibrinogen, globulin, albumin D: Fibrinogen, albumin, globulin

Total plasma protein levels are low during infancy due to:

A: Low protein intake B: Increased protein loss in urine C: Hepatic immaturity D: Total plasma protein levels are higher in infants as compared to adults

Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to:

A: Albumin B: Preallbumin C: Electrolytes D: Fibrinogen

Which one of the following is not a crystalloid?

A: Urea B: Na+ C: Glucose D: Albumin

Albumin fraction in plasma contributes to colloidal osmotic pressure to the extent of:

A: 20% B: 50% C: 80% D: 100%

Calculate the net filtration pressure across the capillary wall. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = 5.3 mmHg, Plasma colloid osmotic pressure …

A: +0.5 mm Hg B: -0.3 mmHg C: -0.5 mmHg D: +0.3 mmHg

Which of the following promotes the rouleaux formation?

A: Albumin B: Prealbumin C: Fibrinogen D: Prothrombin

Buffering capacity of plasma proteins is ..... of total buffering capacity of blood:

A: 10% B: 15% C: 20% D: 25%

Which statement is not true of plasmapheresis?

A: It is a procedure of separation of plasma from the blood B: It is done to exhaust the protein reserves C: It is done to find out the rate of regeneration of plasma proteins on a standard diet D: lt is most commonly employed procedure during dialysis

Increase in gamma globulin is mainly seen in:

A: Tissue destruction B: Fasting C: Severe malnutrition D: Malabsorption

Increased capillary protein permeability will often cause:

A: Decreased interstitial fluid protein concentration B: Increased lymph flow C: Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure D: Interstitial oedema

Glutathiones within the RBCs:

A: Acts as an enzyme of glycolytic system B: Prevents damage of haemoglobin C: Required in the formation of NADPH D: Maintains the shape and flexibility of RBCs

Which is not a function of RBC?

A: Helps in identifying blood groups B: Helps transport of gases C: Provides stability to blood D: Helps in maintaining acid base balance in the body

Normal reticulocyte count at birth is:

A: 1-2% B: 2-6% C: 6-10% D: 30-40%

Interleukins: Are hormones like chemical messengers

A: Are hormones like chemical messengers B: Amino acid sequence is not known C: Are produced by macrophages only D: Are also called as lymphokines

Colony stimulating factor increases production of all except:

A: Lymphocytes B: Neutrophils C: Basophils D: Macrophages

ln a normal individual, erythropoiesis is completed in ...... days:

A: 3 B: 7 C: 14 D: 20

RBC count is less in young females compared to males of same age because:

A: Increased blood loss during menses B: Females are less active and less muscular than the males C: Oestrogens depresses the erythropoiesis D: Low thyroxine levels

Pituitary disturbances produce anaemia due to:

A: Decreased renal erythropoietin factor production B: Depressed erythropoietic response to hypoxia C: Decreased erythropoietin release D: Decreased hepatic synthesis of globulin

Normal bone marrow contains .....% proerythroblast and early normoblast, and ......% of intermediate and late normoblast cells:

A: 30; 70 B: 70; 30 C: 50; 50 D: 80; 20

All of following help in the maturation of RBCs, except:

A: Castle's intrinsic factor B: Iron C: Vitamin B-12 D: Folic acid

Iron deficiency anaemia is:

A: Normocytic normochronic B: Normocytic hypochromic C: Microcytic hypochromic D: Macrocytic hypochromic

All hemolytic anaemias are normocytic normochromic except:

A: Congenital spherocytosis B: Sickle cell anaemia C: Thalassaemia D: Erythroblastosis foetalis

Treatment of a pernicious anaemia patient with folic acid will improve all except:

A: Nervous lesions B: Blood picture C: Changes in GIT D: General symptoms

Patient with iron deficiency anaemia tends to have all, except:

A: Increase in total iron binding capacity B: Normal life span of RBCs C: Pallor of mucous membranes D: A low pO₂ in arterial blood

Biconcave shape and flexibility of RBC is maintained by:

A: Glutathione B: G-6-P-D C: Spectrin D: Actomyocin

Normal myeloid-erythroid ratio in the bone marrow is:

A: 1 : 1 B: 1 : 2 C: 3 : 1 D: 3 : 2

The commonest site of haemopoiesis in a 3 months old foetus is:

A: Liver B: Spleen C: Bone marrow D: Gut

Which bone does not contain the red marrow?

A: Vertebrae B: Ribs C: Sternum D: Clavicle

Major stimulus to trigger extra renal erythropoietin production is:

A: Generalised severe hypoxia B: Renal failure C: Hepatic insufficiency D: Bone marrow hypoxia

True about pernicious anaemia:

A: Caused by lesion of gastric mucosa which contains chief cells B: Associated with normoblastic hyperplasia of bone marrow C: Macrocytic hyperchromic type of RBCs D: Also called destructive/injurious anaemia

Erythroblastosis foetalis is:

A: Destruction of RBCs of mother by foetal Rh antibodies B: Haemolysis in foetus due to maternal Rh antibodies C: Haemolysis in foetus due to maternal ABO antibodies D: Destruction of RBCs of mother by foetal ABO antibodies

Total leucocyte count at birth is:

A: 4000-11000/µL B: 11000-15000/µL C: 15000-18000/µL D: 20000/µL

Neutrophil granules are regarded as lysosomes because:

A: Of fine sand like particles B: They take both acidic and basic stains C: They liberate peroxidase enzyme D: They contain variety of enzymes that can digest any type of substrate

Sequence of events involved during phagocytic mechanism are:

A: Chemotaxis - Diapedesis - Opsonization - Phagocytosis B: Diapedesis - Opsonization - Chemotaxis - Phagocytosis C: Diapedesis - Chemotaxis - Opsonization - Phagocytosis D: Phagocytosis - Diapedesis - Chemotaxis - Opsonization

Hereditary condition in which neutrophils fail to generate superoxide radical:

A: Myeloid leukaemia B: Agranulocytosis C: Chronic granulomatous disease of childhood D: Neutrophil hypomotility

Which is not a physiological cause of leucocytosis?

A: Newborn B: Stress C: Pyogenic infection D: Exercise

Not true about leukaemia is:

A: Cancerous condition of blood B: Always associated with leucocytosis C: Associated with immature WBCs in the peripheral smear C: Associated with tremendous proliferation of myeloid series of cells in the bone marrow

Which is not a function of neutrophil?

A: Phagocytosis B: First line defence against all infections C: Produce febrile response D: Kill the bacteria

Chemical mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction is contained in the granules of:

A: Neutrophils B: Eosinophils C: Basophils D: Mast cells

Which one of the following statements concerning the monocyte is incorrect?

A: More common in blood than eosinophil and basophil B: Produced in the adult by the bone marrow and lymph nodes C: Unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of inflammation D: Not classified as a granulocyte

Which is not true about phagocytosis by a neutrophil?

A: Optimal pH ranges from 6 to 8 B: Not dependent on oxygen C: Can phagocytose 5-20 bacteria D: Neutrophils are more powerful phagocytes than macrophages

Which of these is not present in eosinophil granules?

A: Lysozymes B: Histamine C: Ribonuclease enzyme D: Peroxidase enzyme

Haemoglobin iron combines with:

A: Molecular oxygen rather than ionic oxygen B: Both molecular as well as ionic oxygen C: Oxygen attached to 2,3 DPG D: Superoxide radical

Each haemoglobin molecule carries how many molecules of oxygen?

A: 2 B: 4 C: 6 D: 8

Increase in affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is associated with:

A: More release of oxygen by blood to the tissues B: Shifting of oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right C: Rise in 2,3 DPG concentration in the RBC D: Less oxygen available to the tissues

Exposure of haemoglobin to oxidising agents results in:

A: Ferric form oxidising to ferrous form of iron B: Formation of methaemoglobin C: Cyanosis D: Formation of deoxygenated haemoglobin

Not true about free haemoglobin:

A: Increases the viscosity of the blood B: Interferes with fluid exchange across the capillary wall C: Damages the kidney D: Decreases osmotic pressure of plasma

Index of oxygen carrying capacity of blood is:

A: 2,3 DPG levels in the RBCs B: Iron content of haemoglobin C: Haemoglobin concentration in the blood D: Total iron content in the blood

Not correct about tissue macrophage system:

A: Also called reticulo endothelial system B: Ingests large foreign colloidal particles C: Interferes with fluid exchange across the capillary wall D: Decreases osmotic pressure of plasma

More than 90% of foetal haemoglobin (HbF) is normally replaced by adult haemoglobin (HbA):

A: Soon after birth B: 1-2 months after birth C: 3 months after birth D: 4 months after birth

Main differentiating feature between major and minor β-thalassaemia is that the former:

A: Is more common B: Inherited as heterozygous transmission C: Life span is longer D: Hb-F levels are markedly increased

Sickle cell anaemia, false statement is:

A: RBC fragility increases B: RBCs are sickle shaped C: Blood flow to tissues decreases D: Manifests as mild anaemia

The conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin occurs by:

A: Prothrombin B: Thrombin C: Thromboplastin D: Platelets

Not true of temporary haemostatic plug:

A: It is a loose aggregation of platelets B: Can be removed by anticoagulants C: Seen following an injury to vessel wall D: Gets converted to definitive plug by fibrin

Role of platelets phospholipids in blood coagulation is:

A: Provides a surface on which reagents are concentrated B: Helps platelets adhesion C: Helps platelets activation D: Helps platelets aggregation

In clotting mechanism via intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, the key reaction is:

A: Formation of thrombin B: Formation of fibrin C: Formation of prothrombin activator D: Conversion of factor X to its active form

Administration of aspirin in low dosage shown to be of value in preventing myocardial infarction by:

A: Inhibiting platelets aggregation B: Preventing platelets adhesion C: Initiating platelets activation D: Retracting the blood clot

Calcium deficiencies do not produce coagulation disorders because:

A: Only traces of calcium are required for coagulation B: If deficiency is very severe, it may produce bleeding symptoms C: Calcium acts as a co-factor D: All other clotting factors are intact

Blood normally does not clot in circulation; false statement is

A: Clotted blood liberates certain substances which prevents further clotting B: Removal of activated clotting factors from the circulation C: Activation of fibrinolytic system that limits clotting D: Presence of clotting factors in small amounts.

Human TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) used clinically in treatment of early myocardial infarction acts by:

A: Activation of fibrinolytic system B: Stimulating heparin release from liver C: Removing activated clotting factors from the circulation D: Inhibiting thrombin

Heparin acts by inhibiting:

A: Active form of clotting factor VIII B: Vitamin K synthesis in liver C: Calcium D: Action of thrombin

Lack of Vitamin K causes deficiency of all except:

A: Prothrombin B: Fibrinogen C: Factor VII D: Factor X

Primary purpura is:

A: Congenital disorder B: Due to allergies C: Clotting time is prolonged D: Capillaries are normal

Bleeding in thrombocytopenic purpura usually occurs when platelet count is reduced below:

A: 1.5 lac/µL B: 75,000/µL C: 50,000/µL D: 25,000/µL

Haemophilia is:

A: Autosomal dominant B: Autosomal recessive C: X-linked recessive D: X-linked dominant

Haemostasis is normally associated with all of the following except:

A: Polymerization of plasma prothrombin molecule B: Blood coagulation C: Vascular spasm D: Formation of a platelet plug

The main feature of enzyme cascade systems is:

A: Amplification B: Activated enzymes in turn activate other inactive enzymes C: Negative feedback regulation D: Counter regulation

Constriction of blood vessel following injury is due to:

A: Anoxia B: Serotonin C: Endothelin D: Prostacyclin

Once active form of factor X is formed, clotting takes place within:

A: Few milliseconds B: Few seconds C: Few minutes D: 5-10 minutes

Fibrinolytic system gets activated by all of the following conditions, except:

A: Violent sudden death B: Stress and strain C: Glucocorticoids D: Trypsin inhibitor

Anticoagulants that prevent coagulation when placed in a blood sample outside the body include all except:

A: Citrates B: Oxalate C: Heparin D: Coumarins

Hemophilia B results due to lack of which of the following factors of coagulation?

A: Factor V B: Factor VIII C: Factor IX D: Factor X

The least frequent blood group in India is:

A: A B: B C: AB D: O

Blood group 'O' RBCs are agglutinated by:

A: Agglutinin α B: Agglutinin ß C: Both α and ß D: Neither α nor ß

Classical 'ABO' blood groups agglutinogen first appear:

A: In the 6th week of foetal life B: At birth C: 1 year of life D: 10 years of life

With respect to blood groups, maximum titre of agglutinin is usually reached:

A: At birth B: 1–3 years of age C: 1–3 years of age D: 8–10 years of age

Rh negative individuals are those:

A: Whose serum contains no Rh antibody B: Whose RBCs contain antigen D C: With absence of Rh antigen on their RBC membrane and their serum also contains no Rh antibody D: In whom production of anti-D antibodies can be provoked by other blood groups

Absence of anti-A and anti-Rh agglutinin in the plasma means that subject is:

A: A-positive or AB-positive B: A-negative or AB-negative C: A-positive, AB-positive, A-negative or AB-negative D: Type O-positive

Prevention of erythroblastosis in Rh-positive babies with the Rh-negative mother is by:

A: Passive immunizing the mother against Rh-positive factor soon after childbirth B: Immunization to be carried out during the pregnancy C: Destruction of Rh-positive cells in foetus by anti-Rh antibodies D: Fresh blood transfusion to the baby immediately after birth

Which one of the following changes would not occur in blood after 7 days of storage?

A: Decreased concentration of dextrose and increased concentration of lactic acid B: Decreased concentration of plasma potassium C: An increased prothrombin time D: A decreased concentration of platelets

Rh-negative mother carrying Rh-positive foetus, first child born is usually normal because:

A: Mother does not have agglutinogen D B: Anti-Rh titre developed is not sufficiently high to destroy the foetal RBCs C: Foetal agglutinogen D cannot cross the placenta D: Anti-Rh titre developed in the mother's plasma cannot cross the placenta to destroy the foetal RBCs

In cross-matching before blood transfusion:

A: Donor's RBCs are mixed with recipient plasma B: Donor's RBCs are mixed with recipient RBCs C: Donor's plasma is mixed with recipient RBCs D: Donor's plasma is mixed with recipient plasma

"Fresh" blood refers to blood which is administered:

A: Immediately B: Within 12 hours C: Within 24 hours D: Within 72 hours

Validation Certificates

1. Composition & function of blood components

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2. Plasma proteins

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3. Blood group

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4. Hb-final

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5. Platelets & hemostasis

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6. RBC -formation

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7. WBC

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